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8192 - 1
I have a question about,
frequency = 440 * 2 ^ [ (outputNote - 69) / 12 + (pitchBend / 8192 - 1) / 6 ].
Why the (8192 – 1) and not (8192)? The rang of pitch bend is –8192 to +8191 with 0 being no bend the total range is 16383. Using (8192 – 1) would give you true +200 ¢ but would give you more than 200 ¢ negative. There for the ranges of pitch bend would over lap when changing notes by a tone. Using 8192 there would be on over lap. Are there any synthesizers that use (8192 – 1)? That seems like a more complicated math for the synthesizers.
Using + or – 50 ¢ I would think you would not want the over lap either,
requency = 440 * 2 ^ [ (ON - 69) / 12 + (PB / 8192) / 24 ].
So to get a +50 ¢ PB you would go to,
requency = 440 * 2 ^ [ ((ON + 1) - 69) / 12 + (-8192 / 8192) / 24 ].
And to get a –50 ¢ PB you would go to,
requency = 440 * 2 ^ [ ((ON) - 69) / 12 + (-8192 / 8192) / 24 ].
Thank you,
ƒg
- gillmre September 27, 2013, 08:56:51 PM UTC-0700
You misunderstand, my friend.
1) (pitchBend / 8192 - 1) / 6 is really ((pitchBend / 8192) - 1) / 6. Division has a higher priority than subtraction.
2) In terms of the MSB & LSB of the actual midi messages, pitchBend runs from 0 to 16383. Many DAWs display that range as -8192 to +8191, just as midi channel 0 is displayed as channel 1.
3) (pitchBend / 8192 - 1) / 6 ranges from -1/6 to nearly +1/6 of an octave, or from -200¢ to +199.83¢.
4) if you complain about not being able to bend that last 0.17¢ up to the major 2nd, I will scream!
- TallKite October 09, 2013, 10:02:43 AM UTC-0700