User talk:Grady/Harmonic similarity: Difference between revisions
No edit summary |
No edit summary |
||
| Line 2: | Line 2: | ||
I saw what you wrote in about tritaves working better as equivalences than fifths, but my thought is that such a phenomenon mainly holds true for the same reason that perfect unisons and perfect octaves differ- of course, it should go without saying that we can't divide the perfect unison into smaller segments, because two notes "separated" by a perfect unison are exactly identical. Any thoughts on this idea? --[[User:Aura|Aura]] ([[User talk:Aura|talk]]) 17:48, 6 August 2025 (UTC) | I saw what you wrote in about tritaves working better as equivalences than fifths, but my thought is that such a phenomenon mainly holds true for the same reason that perfect unisons and perfect octaves differ- of course, it should go without saying that we can't divide the perfect unison into smaller segments, because two notes "separated" by a perfect unison are exactly identical. Any thoughts on this idea? --[[User:Aura|Aura]] ([[User talk:Aura|talk]]) 17:48, 6 August 2025 (UTC) | ||
To put this into another theory, I'd say that the dissimilarity introduced by successive octaves- assuming both that such octaves are perfectly tuned and that are ears are perfect- is not of the same type as the dissimilarity introduced by successive tritaves. To this end, I think my concept of pitch hue really does play a role in this, but, I don't know if I've articulated the whole concept to you before. We'll have to talk in DMs on Discord to hash this out. --[[User:Aura|Aura]] ([[User talk:Aura|talk]]) 18:19, 6 August 2025 (UTC) | |||
Revision as of 18:19, 6 August 2025
Tritaves and Fifths versus Octaves and Unisons
I saw what you wrote in about tritaves working better as equivalences than fifths, but my thought is that such a phenomenon mainly holds true for the same reason that perfect unisons and perfect octaves differ- of course, it should go without saying that we can't divide the perfect unison into smaller segments, because two notes "separated" by a perfect unison are exactly identical. Any thoughts on this idea? --Aura (talk) 17:48, 6 August 2025 (UTC)
To put this into another theory, I'd say that the dissimilarity introduced by successive octaves- assuming both that such octaves are perfectly tuned and that are ears are perfect- is not of the same type as the dissimilarity introduced by successive tritaves. To this end, I think my concept of pitch hue really does play a role in this, but, I don't know if I've articulated the whole concept to you before. We'll have to talk in DMs on Discord to hash this out. --Aura (talk) 18:19, 6 August 2025 (UTC)