User:Grady/Harmonic similarity: Difference between revisions

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== Motivation ==

I developed this theory to attempt to answer the question, "Why are two notes an [[2/1|octave]] apart perceived as equivalent?" The typical explanation given is that it has something to do with the fact that the upper note is prominently featured in the harmonic spectrum of the lower note, assuming a typical [[harmonic timbre]]. However, this completely fails to explain why the octave is special in this regard, and why a similar phenomenon seemingly never occurs with other harmonics (even if less commonly or in a less pronounced manner), most namely the [[3/1|tritave]].

I developed this theory to attempt to answer the question, "Why are two notes an [[2/1|octave]] apart perceived as equivalent?" The typical explanation given is that it has something to do with the fact that the upper note is prominently featured in the harmonic spectrum of the lower note, assuming a typical [[harmonic timbre]]. However, this completely fails to explain why the octave is special in this regard, and why a similar phenomenon seemingly never occurs with other harmonics (even if less commonly, under more specific circumstances, or in a less pronounced manner), most namely the [[3/1|tritave]].

Some people have claimed to hear tritave equivalence, but so far no one has purported to hear notes any number of tritaves apart as being within the same [[pitch class]], something many musicians simply take for granted with regard to octaves, and in my opinion, a necessary requisite for true equivalence perception.

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 == Motivation ==
-I developed this theory to attempt to answer the question, "Why are two notes an [[2/1|octave]] apart perceived as equivalent?" The typical explanation given is that it has something to do with the fact that the upper note is prominently featured in the harmonic spectrum of the lower note, assuming a typical [[harmonic timbre]]. However, this completely fails to explain why the octave is special in this regard, and why a similar phenomenon seemingly never occurs with other harmonics (even if less commonly or in a less pronounced manner), most namely the [[3/1|tritave]].
+I developed this theory to attempt to answer the question, "Why are two notes an [[2/1|octave]] apart perceived as equivalent?" The typical explanation given is that it has something to do with the fact that the upper note is prominently featured in the harmonic spectrum of the lower note, assuming a typical [[harmonic timbre]]. However, this completely fails to explain why the octave is special in this regard, and why a similar phenomenon seemingly never occurs with other harmonics (even if less commonly, under more specific circumstances, or in a less pronounced manner), most namely the [[3/1|tritave]].
 Some people have claimed to hear tritave equivalence, but so far no one has purported to hear notes any number of tritaves apart as being within the same [[pitch class]], something many musicians simply take for granted with regard to octaves, and in my opinion, a necessary requisite for true equivalence perception.